A 3000 could easily beat a 2000, but could a 4000 easily beat a 3000?

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EndgameEnthusiast2357

Is there something wrong with the forums today?

Elroch
long_quach wrote:

The answer is yes.

The Elo equation is made to be that way.

The difference in the ratings equals an exact chance of winning or losing. (Although "exact" and "chance" cannot be in the same sentence.)

 

Side note: I always thought that 3000 is the asymptote of the Elo equation. (I used the word "asymptote " in real life, how about that?)

There is no such asymptote. The same Elo calculation can be used for a wide variety of games and the upper limit can be absolutely anything. The upper limit for chess is unknown and remains very uncertain. Arguments to the contrary are not that reliable.

 

Elroch

There is an empirical assumption in the Elo formula. It is that if you have three players A, B and C then the scores they expect to achieve against each other are related in a way that can be derived from the Elo formula. This is in no sense obvious and doesn't need to be precisely correct for the rating system to work (but it seems pretty accurate anyhow).

If the above is confusing, suppose A gets 60% against B and B gets 60% against C then how much should A get against C? To estimate this from the Elo ratings, you just looking what rating difference achieves a 60% score and then look up what score twice that rating difference achieves.

EndgameEnthusiast2357

Not double but 60% of 60% from A to C, it's geometric, not linear, if it is transitive that way.

KingsGambitFan
ayesdeeef wrote:

Yes, the 4000 would crush the 3000 just like a 2000 crushes a 1000. ELOs are relative, so if the 3000 ELO was a perfect player and couldn't be beaten, then noone could attain 4000 ELO.

Quite true I agree

EndgameEnthusiast2357

Lower end of the spectrum is weirder. How can you make a move worse then the worst possible moves If a 500 rated player always falls for a mate in 1, how could anyone be less than 500?

drmrboss
EndgameStudier wrote:

Lower end of the spectrum is weirder. How can you make a move worse then the worst possible moves If a 500 rated player always falls for a mate in 1, how could anyone be less than 500?

Depend on who fall mate within 5 moves vs 10 moves out of opening.

 

I saw a lot of < 500 rated people, although average game length among lower rated people is low like <30, they dont always die within 10 moves. The one who blunder worst usually lose.

 

( In comparision, average game length human OTB 2200-2800 is 40, among top engines is 60-70 depending on opening book and hardwares).

EndgameEnthusiast2357

My original point was that it's hard to believe ratings are linear if exponential figures, such as square roots, are used in calculations after tournaments games. It also depends on which system is sued, rating changes after each game added up, or an average opponent rating calculation after a 5 game swiss system...etc, am not sure if both approaches are commutative or not.

caimzri1h
EndgameStudier wrote:

Not double but 60% of 60% from A to C, it's geometric, not linear, if it is transitive that way.

??
I don't quite get what you mean, 60% of 60% is 36%. If A wins B most of the time, and B wins C most of the time, shouldn't A also win C most of the time? This isn't simple probability. 

EndgameEnthusiast2357
caimzri1h wrote:
EndgameStudier wrote:

Not double but 60% of 60% from A to C, it's geometric, not linear, if it is transitive that way.

??
I don't quite get what you mean, 60% of 60% is 36%. If A wins B most of the time, and B wins C most of the time, shouldn't A also win C most of the time? This isn't simple probability. 

The rating formula is geometric, not linear.

EndgameEnthusiast2357

Maybe we should narrow the question to whether a 3501 is better than a 3500?

EndgameEnthusiast2357

We tend to say players 1 point apart are even, yet one should still theoretically win .3% more games than the other! The question is when does the difference in rating points drop below the significance of the different choice of moves? If there are 40 moves in a given position, and say 10 of them win, 20 of them draw, and 10 lose, and there is a rating difference of less than 40 points, at some point the level of play must overlap with the same move choice with different ratings!

SmyslovFan

For context, the choice of color alone gives about 80 rating points’ difference (40 more for White and 40 less for Black).

The difference in rating for the first move is slightly higher in middle rating ranges because beginners don’t know how to take advantage of the first move while people don’t learn how to defend properly until they are generally above about 1800.

EndgameEnthusiast2357
SmyslovFan wrote:

For context, the choice of color alone gives about 80 rating points’ difference (40 more for White and 40 less for Black).

The difference in rating for the first move is slightly higher in middle rating ranges because beginners don’t know how to take advantage of the first move while people don’t learn how to defend properly until they are generally above about 1800.

I really don't believe white has an advantage by moving first. White may be in zugzwang from the very beginning of the game for all we know, but I can't see a reason chess is not a theoretical draw, despite this not being provable. Reverse Logic. What makes people think it is not a draw in the first place. If White had 2 first moves then maybe I could see that theory, but then again Magnus played Knight back to G8 and A3 wasting a couple moves and still won, let alone drew

Metal_Pineapple

yeah idunno about that

EndgameEnthusiast2357

No problem, I have racing thought problems too.

QSO67
EndgameStudier wrote:

I think my question is perfectly reasonable. At a certain point, the players are so good that no matter what the difference in rating is, the game will be very hard.

"Chess without mistakes is nothing." ~ K_RICHTER®

EndgameEnthusiast2357
QSO67 wrote:
EndgameStudier wrote:

I think my question is perfectly reasonable. At a certain point, the players are so good that no matter what the difference in rating is, the game will be very hard.

"Chess without mistakes is nothing." ~ K_RICHTER®

That's another whole discussion. Even if we know what the best moves are with perfect play, we do not the best moves from positions achieved with non-perfect play. A 32 piece tablebase would be needed for that.

QSO67
EndgameStudier wrote:
QSO67 wrote:
EndgameStudier wrote:

I think my question is perfectly reasonable. At a certain point, the players are so good that no matter what the difference in rating is, the game will be very hard.

"Chess without mistakes is nothing." ~ K_RICHTER®

That's another whole discussion. Even if we know what the best moves are with perfect play, we do not the best moves from positions achieved with non-perfect play. A 32 piece tablebase would be needed for that.

agree

Elroch
EndgameStudier wrote:

Not double but 60% of 60% from A to C, it's geometric, not linear, if it is transitive that way.

No, it is not geometric, exponential or linear. It is what the Elo formula for expected score says.

To be specific, here is the Elo calculation for the expected score for two players with rating RA and RB.

So if EA = 0.6 (i.e. 60%), RB-RA = 400*log10(1/0.6-1) = 70.43 points. 

This means the rating difference of A and C = 70.43 + 70.43 = 140.86, so from the same formula, the expected score of A against C is 69.23%. 

There is nothing obvious about this relationship between the expected scores, it just comes from the formula, and the formula has been found to be empirically quite accurate, so the rating system works.