Chess will never be solved, here's why

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Avatar of Optimissed
tygxc wrote:

#3851
"you and I are agreed that there's no likelihood of a full solution for chess coming soon."
++ On no basis at all. I agree with Sveshnikov it can be done in 5 years.

"That means that if we wish to try to answer the question of whether chess is a draw, we have no deductive argument to fall back upon: nor any likelihood of there ever being one."
++ There are deductive arguments. White is 1 tempo up. 3 tempi equals 1 pawn. It needs 1 pawn to win. 1 tempo is not enough to win.

Beg your pardon, that was to Elroch. Sorry if I was confusing.

Avatar of Elroch
Optimissed wrote:
Elroch wrote:

 

Apparently, you and @tygxc  now "know" that chess is a draw. In your case this is inconsistent with your earlier position, but there is no necessity for this type of knowing to be consistent.

It may be inconsistent with my earlier position as you understood it but I've always maintained that I know that chess is a draw.

Quote from a book on philosophy I happen to be reading:

<<How do you know that you know the stuff you think you know? Take away the option of answering, “I just do!” and what’s left is epistemology.>>

Yes of course. Where does this knowledge come from and why do we classify it as knowledge? Earlier I pointed out that we can subjectively classify something as knowledge but that the common concept is that knowledge is something that's commonly shared. Obviously it may not be shared among a majority of people. It may be among a small minority or, obviously, in a minority of one when a person sees something physical, unseen by others: for instance, as a witness to a murder.

This business about chess isn't physical. It's cognitive and it's a possible interpretation of previous chess results. It seems a very reasonable interpretation. It has never been refuted. Those of us who believe it to be knowledge share the conviction that it will never be refuted. One or the other is correct and we think that our alternative is the one that is real. If so, then that would mean that btickler's opinion is the one that's deluded. Yet that does not excuse his use of the word "delusion", when referring to others. It's merely an effect of his weakness at debate. He ought not do it. It's a childish, Facebook kind of thing.

That doesn't mean that every belief that is based on something (rather than nothing) is certain. It is extremely common for people not to recognise that their basis for a belief means it is uncertain.

Yes, absolutely right. However, you and I are agreed that there's no likelihood of a full solution for chess coming soon. Personally I think it's impossible. That means that if we wish to try to answer the question of whether chess is a draw, we have no deductive argument to fall back upon: nor any likelihood of there ever being one. Therefore we have to go with evidence, such as we have. That means inductively, doesn't it?

 

The answer is really very simple: we have to accept there is uncertainty.

I would have thought you would agree on the semantics that where there is uncertainty, the correct word is "believe" rather than "know".

For example, a very rational person holds a lottery tick and says "I believe I will not win the superdraw tonight". She may be aware that there is a theoretical 1 in 500,000,000 chance of winning the roll-over prize. She does not say "I know I will not win the superdraw tonight" because she considers the distinction based on a very unlikely 2 in a billion chance important and it may have been why she bought a ticket.

Now, here is an example of a less rational person, apparently incapable of understanding this point:

tygxc wrote:

#3831

"It is widely hypothesized that classical chess is theoretically drawn"
++ That is the cautionous way to say "Chess is a draw" like Fischer said.

Firstly, no it isn't.  Being "widely hypothesised" is so different to being a certainty that it is surprising that anyone would make the claim that the two are the same.

Given this degree of sloppiness it is no surprise that I was unable to justify the claim that Fischer ever said "chess is a draw" (not that if he had it would carry any more weight than other things he said that were false).  Rather I find that Fischer thought that it's almost definite that the game is a draw theoretically, for which there are three references.  Note the appropriate uncertainty.

Avatar of Optimissed
tygxc wrote:

#3851
"you and I are agreed that there's no likelihood of a full solution for chess coming soon."
++ On no basis at all. I agree with Sveshnikov it can be done in 5 years.

"That means that if we wish to try to answer the question of whether chess is a draw, we have no deductive argument to fall back upon: nor any likelihood of there ever being one."
++ There are deductive arguments. White is 1 tempo up. 3 tempi equals 1 pawn. It needs 1 pawn to win. 1 tempo is not enough to win.

No idea what this refers to, I'm sorry to say.

Avatar of Optimissed
Elroch wrote:
Optimissed wrote:
Elroch wrote:

 

Apparently, you and @tygxc  now "know" that chess is a draw. In your case this is inconsistent with your earlier position, but there is no necessity for this type of knowing to be consistent.

It may be inconsistent with my earlier position as you understood it but I've always maintained that I know that chess is a draw.

Quote from a book on philosophy I happen to be reading:

<<How do you know that you know the stuff you think you know? Take away the option of answering, “I just do!” and what’s left is epistemology.>>

Yes of course. Where does this knowledge come from and why do we classify it as knowledge? Earlier I pointed out that we can subjectively classify something as knowledge but that the common concept is that knowledge is something that's commonly shared. Obviously it may not be shared among a majority of people. It may be among a small minority or, obviously, in a minority of one when a person sees something physical, unseen by others: for instance, as a witness to a murder.

This business about chess isn't physical. It's cognitive and it's a possible interpretation of previous chess results. It seems a very reasonable interpretation. It has never been refuted. Those of us who believe it to be knowledge share the conviction that it will never be refuted. One or the other is correct and we think that our alternative is the one that is real. If so, then that would mean that btickler's opinion is the one that's deluded. Yet that does not excuse his use of the word "delusion", when referring to others. It's merely an effect of his weakness at debate. He ought not do it. It's a childish, Facebook kind of thing.

That doesn't mean that every belief that is based on something (rather than nothing) is certain. It is extremely common for people not to recognise that their basis for a belief means it is uncertain.

Yes, absolutely right. However, you and I are agreed that there's no likelihood of a full solution for chess coming soon. Personally I think it's impossible. That means that if we wish to try to answer the question of whether chess is a draw, we have no deductive argument to fall back upon: nor any likelihood of there ever being one. Therefore we have to go with evidence, such as we have. That means inductively, doesn't it?

 

The answer is really very simple: we have to accept there is uncertainty.

I would have thought you would agree on the semantics that where there is uncertainty, the correct word is "believe" rather than "know".

For example, a very rational person holds a lottery tick and says "I believe I will not win the superdraw tonight". She may be aware that there is a theoretical 1 in 500,000,000 chance of winning the roll-over prize. She does not say "I know I will not win the superdraw tonight" because she considers the distinction based on a very unlikely 2 in a billion chance important and it may have been why she bought a ticket.

Now, here is an example of a less rational person, apparently incapable of understanding this point:

tygxc wrote:

#3831

"It is widely hypothesized that classical chess is theoretically drawn"
++ That is the cautionous way to say "Chess is a draw" like Fischer said.

Firstly, no it isn't.  Being "widely hypothesised" is so different to being a certainty that it is surprising that anyone would make the claim that the two are the same.

Given this degree of sloppiness it is no surprise that I was unable to justify the claim that Fischer ever said "chess is a draw" (not that if he had it would carry any more weight than other things he said that were false).  Rather I find that Fischer thought that it's almost definite that the game is a draw theoretically, for which there are three references.  Note the appropriate uncertainty.


But we also have to accept that the proposition that we have to accept uncertainty is not necessarily on firm ground. I wish we could discuss religion and in particular, the different interpretations of agnosticism. But I think I can do it this way, safely.

The normal interpretation of agnosticism was "not knowing". Agnosticism refers just as much to a knowledge of whether chess is drawn as to anything else, so it should be ok.

Dawkins et al championed the idea that if someone can not know deductively, then in fact they are agnostics, whether or not they believe themselves to be atheists.

I think of myself as being gnostic, regarding the question of whether chess is a draw. I believe that I have sufficient grounds to know it's a draw and someone else telling me I don't isn't going to convince me, because of the parallel with something else. I believe I have the expertise and judgement to know it's a draw and also to know that it is impossible that a full solution can be achieved, such that my supposition can be confirmed or refuted. I don't believe that there's any uncertainty because there is a confirming principle.

I've introduced the supporting principle previously. It's regarding the trend, with each pair of moves, for the opening imbalance to be evened out. It would require a reversal of this trend, to the extent that, at a time and point in the game which is hidden, all games must suffer a reversal of this trend. I believe I am entitled to believe on theoretical grounds that it is definitely a draw and I also believe that I'm entitled to believe that my understanding of this theoretical approach is such that there is no hint at all that it is possible for anyone to show that it's false.

So I can know that chess is a draw. Due to greater expertise, actually.

Avatar of lfPatriotGames
Optimissed wrote:
lfPatriotGames wrote:
 

Any guess about the ultimate outcome of chess is hypothesizing. The guess "chess is a forced win for white" is just as valid as the guess "chess is a draw". Both are equal because both have good reasons to exist. 



Hi, equally valid doesn't mean equally correct. "Valid" sort of means "on subject". An invalid guess means that the answer to "is chess a draw?" is "a piano".

You're confusing guessing with scientifically based hypothesis. We have every reason to believe that the scientifically based hypothesis that chess is a draw is correct. There's no reason to believe "chess is a win" to be correct, so you're comparing mushrooms with octopusses. Superficially similar but not alike in reality.

No. We are just as close to proving chess is a forced win for white as we are to proving chess is a draw. So far nobody has even come close to proving either one. Not even close.  Lots and lots of guesses, lots of assumptions, lots of hypothesizing and grandstanding. Lots of faith, lots of belief, lots of wishful thinking. But no proof.

So as long as the two choices are equal, and they are, then there is no harm in choosing either one. Whatever your personal preference is on the topic, it's perfectly valid.  Which is why for those who say it MUST be one way, and can't be the other, prove it. Obviously it can't be proven, so until it can, it's probably best to keep an open mind on all the possibilities. 

Avatar of lfPatriotGames
tygxc wrote:

#3846
"you and I are agreed that there's no likelihood of a full solution for chess coming soon."
++ On no basis at all. I agree with Sveshnikov it can be done in 5 years.

"That means that if we wish to try to answer the question of whether chess is a draw, we have no deductive argument to fall back upon: nor any likelihood of there ever being one."
++ There are deductive arguments. White is 1 tempo up. 3 tempi equals 1 pawn. It needs 1 pawn to win. 1 tempo is not enough to win.

You believe a full solution to chess can be found within 5 years? Well, you also seem to believe chess is a draw, so there's that. 

Of course both those things are possible. I just don't think either one is very likely. You might believe chess will be proven a draw within 5 years, I believe it will be proven a forced white win within 200 years. And there is always the possibility we are both half right. Maybe chess will be proven a forced white win in 5 years. Or proven a draw within 200 years. 

Avatar of Optimissed
lfPatriotGames wrote:
Optimissed wrote:
lfPatriotGames wrote:
 

Any guess about the ultimate outcome of chess is hypothesizing. The guess "chess is a forced win for white" is just as valid as the guess "chess is a draw". Both are equal because both have good reasons to exist. 



Hi, equally valid doesn't mean equally correct. "Valid" sort of means "on subject". An invalid guess means that the answer to "is chess a draw?" is "a piano".

You're confusing guessing with scientifically based hypothesis. We have every reason to believe that the scientifically based hypothesis that chess is a draw is correct. There's no reason to believe "chess is a win" to be correct, so you're comparing mushrooms with octopusses. Superficially similar but not alike in reality.

No. We are just as close to proving chess is a forced win for white as we are to proving chess is a draw. So far nobody has even come close to proving either one. Not even close.  Lots and lots of guesses, lots of assumptions, lots of hypothesizing and grandstanding. Lots of faith, lots of belief, lots of wishful thinking. But no proof.

So as long as the two choices are equal, and they are, then there is no harm in choosing either one. Whatever your personal preference is on the topic, it's perfectly valid.  Which is why for those who say it MUST be one way, and can't be the other, prove it. Obviously it can't be proven, so until it can, it's probably best to keep an open mind on all the possibilities. 


You're definitely wrong there, because in no way is it as close to proving it's a win as a draw. There isn't even a hint that it's a win, so you're falling back on the pseudo-theory of agnosticism being the only possible result of a failure to deduce.

Avatar of Optimissed

I clicked on Elroch's link.

<<<<Chess theorists have long debated how enduring White's initiative is and whether, if both sides play perfectly, the game should end in a win for White or a draw. George Walker wrote in 1846 that, "The first move is an advantage, ... but if properly answered, the first move is of little worth".[29] Steinitz, the first World Champion, who is widely considered the father of modern chess,[30][31][32] wrote in 1889, "It is now conceded by all experts that by proper play on both sides the legitimate issue of a game ought to be a draw."[33] Lasker and Capablanca, the second and third World Champions, agreed.[34][35][36] Reuben Fine, one of the world's leading players from 1936 to 1951,[37] wrote that White's opening advantage is too intangible to be sufficient for a win without an error by Black.[38]>>>>

But the above is improperly described in its introduction. The ensuing isn't evidence of  even the beginnings of a debate. Each past Master is expressing certainty that it's drawn.

ie, "is sufficient"
"is now conceded"
"is of little worth"

No hint of a maybe amongst them.

Avatar of tygxc

#3852

"We are just as close to proving chess is a forced win for white as we are to proving chess is a draw." ++ And as chess is a forced win for black too?
There is massive evidence for chess being a draw, none for a white or black win.

"Lots and lots of guesses, lots of assumptions, lots of hypothesizing and grandstanding. Lots of faith, lots of belief, lots of wishful thinking."
++ Lots of facts and figures. AlphaZero, TCEC, ICCF, human GM.

"So as long as the two choices are equal" ++ You mean the 3 choices?

"and they are"
++ They are not. It is not because there are 3 possibilities that they are equally likely.

"Whatever your personal preference is on the topic, it's perfectly valid."
++ No, that is not true.
Look at the position after 1 e4 e5 2 Ba6. There are 3 possibilities: a draw, a white win, a black win. They are not equally likely. I know black wins this position, but I do not have a full game tree ending in checkmate for all possibilities. I know it is a forced checkmate, but I do not know in how many moves.

"Which is why for those who say it MUST be one way, and can't be the other, prove it."
++ I have listed the empirical (AlphaZero, TCEC, ICCF, human GM) and theoretical (1 tempo = 1/3 pawn < 1 pawn) evidence.
Even more: each move dilutes the initial tempo up, so if there were a white win, then it would be a short win, not a long one. However, a short win would have been found long ago.
Even more: the simpler game Checkers (32 squares, 24 men, 2 kinds of men) took 10^14 positions to weakly solve, more than 10^9 for Losing Chess (64 squares, 32 men, 6 kinds of men, just like chess) because Losing Chess is a white win with 1 e3 and Checkers is a draw. A draw is harder to prove than a win. If chess were a forced win, then it would have been weakly solved before Checkers.

"Obviously it can't be proven"
++ Chess is a finite game so obviously it can be proven.
Based on facts and figures I agree with Sveshnikov that chess can be weakly solved in 5 years.

Avatar of Optimissed

<<The view that a game of chess should end in a draw given best play prevails. Even if it cannot be proved, this assumption is considered "safe" by Rowson and "logical" by Adorján.[39][40] Watson agrees that "the proper result of a perfectly played chess game ... is a draw. ... Of course, I can't prove this, but I doubt that you can find a single strong player who would disagree. ... I remember Kasparov, after a last-round draw, explaining to the waiting reporters: 'Well, chess is a draw.'"[41] World Champion Bobby Fischer thought that "it's almost definite that the game is a draw theoretically".[42][43][44] Similarly, British grandmaster Nigel Short wrote that "... with perfect play, God versus God ... chess is a draw".[45]>>

I would go with Rowson's "safe".

Avatar of Optimissed
tygxc wrote:

#3852

"We are just as close to proving chess is a forced win for white as we are to proving chess is a draw." ++ And as chess is a forced win for black too?
There is massive evidence for chess being a draw, none for a white or black win.

"Lots and lots of guesses, lots of assumptions, lots of hypothesizing and grandstanding. Lots of faith, lots of belief, lots of wishful thinking."
++ Lots of facts and figures. AlphaZero, TCEC, ICCF, human GM.

"So as long as the two choices are equal" ++ You mean the 3 choices?

"and they are"
++ They are not. It is not because there are 3 possibilities that they are equally likely.

"Whatever your personal preference is on the topic, it's perfectly valid."
++ No, that is not true.
Look at the position after 1 e4 e5 2 Ba6. There are 3 possibilities: a draw, a white win, a black win. They are not equally likely. I know black wins this position, but I do not have a full game tree ending in checkmate for all possibilities. I know it is a forced checkmate, but I do not know in how many moves.

"Which is why for those who say it MUST be one way, and can't be the other, prove it."
++ I have listed the empirical (AlphaZero, TCEC, ICCF, human GM) and theoretical (1 tempo = 1/3 pawn < 1 pawn) evidence.
Even more: each move dilutes the initial tempo up, so if there were a white win, then it would be a short win, not a long one. However, a short win would have been found long ago.
Even more: the simpler game Checkers (32 squares, 24 men, 2 kinds of men) took 10^14 positions to weakly solve, more than 10^9 for Losing Chess (64 squares, 32 men, 6 kinds of men, just like chess) because Losing Chess is a white win with 1 e3 and Checkers is a draw. A draw is harder to prove than a win. If chess were a forced win, then it would have been weakly solved before Checkers.

"Obviously it can't be proven"
++ Chess is a finite game so obviously it can be proven.
Based on facts and figures I agree with Sveshnikov that chess can be weakly solved in 5 years.

Definitely disagree with the last bit but agree with the preceding. Pragmatically, chess is infinite.

Avatar of lfPatriotGames
Optimissed wrote:
lfPatriotGames wrote:
Optimissed wrote:
lfPatriotGames wrote:
 

Any guess about the ultimate outcome of chess is hypothesizing. The guess "chess is a forced win for white" is just as valid as the guess "chess is a draw". Both are equal because both have good reasons to exist. 



Hi, equally valid doesn't mean equally correct. "Valid" sort of means "on subject". An invalid guess means that the answer to "is chess a draw?" is "a piano".

You're confusing guessing with scientifically based hypothesis. We have every reason to believe that the scientifically based hypothesis that chess is a draw is correct. There's no reason to believe "chess is a win" to be correct, so you're comparing mushrooms with octopusses. Superficially similar but not alike in reality.

No. We are just as close to proving chess is a forced win for white as we are to proving chess is a draw. So far nobody has even come close to proving either one. Not even close.  Lots and lots of guesses, lots of assumptions, lots of hypothesizing and grandstanding. Lots of faith, lots of belief, lots of wishful thinking. But no proof.

So as long as the two choices are equal, and they are, then there is no harm in choosing either one. Whatever your personal preference is on the topic, it's perfectly valid.  Which is why for those who say it MUST be one way, and can't be the other, prove it. Obviously it can't be proven, so until it can, it's probably best to keep an open mind on all the possibilities. 


You're definitely wrong there, because in no way is it as close to proving it's a win as a draw. There isn't even a hint that it's a win, so you're falling back on the pseudo-theory of agnosticism being the only possible result of a failure to deduce.

I could be definitely wrong. All you have to do is prove chess is a draw. From what I've seen nobody has even come close to that. I know lots of people have strong opinions and strong beliefs, but that's not proof. 

It would be like you can "prove" you can't win the lottery. As proof you buy a lottery ticket, using the best skills available. You don't win. You you do it again, but don't win. Pretty soon 99% of the time you don't win. Pretty soon virtually every time you play the lottery, you don't win. It may even be a fact that you don't win 99.99% of the time. So the assumption is that it's impossible to win the lottery. It's a fact. It can't be done. Because over 99.99% of lottery plays are not wins. 

But I don't consider that proof. I consider that a belief. 

If you can prove that 100% of all chess games, played with the "best moves" whatever that might be at the current moment, are draws, then that would be a start. But so far nobody has ever done that. 

So until then we are not any closer to proving either side. But it would be interesting to see if at the highest level if whites win percentage is going up, going down, or staying the same. 

Avatar of Optimissed


I've pointed out that we already have a proof that chess is drawn. It just isn't deductive.

A deductive proof would be

Chess is drawn if all custard is custard coloured.
All custard is custard coloured.
Therefore chess is a draw.

That's a syllogism. All you have to do is prove that the first two propositions are true and you know beyond doubt that chess is a draw.

It means, doesn't it, that a proof is very trivial thing? Instead, let's use our minds a bit.

Avatar of DiogenesDue
tygxc wrote:

++ On no basis at all. I agree with Sveshnikov it can be done in 5 years.

You put a period after that first sentence when it should be a comma wink.png.

Avatar of haiaku

@Optimissed

I have read your essay carefully. I have already stated in a previous post that since logic is based on postulates, in fact deductions are a form of faith. Therefore I do not agree with your distinction between cultists, scientists and theorists; we are all cultists to start with. But this discussion about epistemology and philosophy of science may lead too much off topic. The core point is that without an exhaustive proof, no scientific theory can be guaranteed to hold true in any possible case. Galilean relativity, Newton's law of gravitation and classical mechanics are golden examples. They were thought to be always true, "unbeatable" so to speak, and they were consistent with centuries of experiments. There was no evidence that they might produce quite inaccurate predictions. We all know how it went: they fail miserably under some circumstances.

In game theory, "optimal" is not a casual attribute. For chess, it means that an optimal player would be unbeatable in a match with an even number of games: if the game value is a draw, the optimal player would at least draw every game; if it's a win for either colour, the optimal player would always force the win with that colour. Therefore, the optimal player cannot score less than 50% of the points. Without a mathematical, exhaustive proof, a player cannot be guaranteed to be optimal, exactly like a scientific theory, without an exhaustive proof, cannot be guaranteed to always hold true.

This is not what people expect, when they read something like "the game xyz has been solved". They think about a definitive solution, that nobody will be able to disprove, ever.

Avatar of DiogenesDue
stancco wrote:

Goos one 🤣🤣🤣

we are witnesses of a slack jaw dimness here

🤣🤣🤣

Did you know that your username means "tired out" in Italian?

Avatar of DiogenesDue
Optimissed wrote:

Having thought about it for a few minutes while toasting some crumpets, I've arrived at the following conclusion.

No-one here has any just nor reasonable grounds to contradict the simple assertion, by tygxc and myself, that we know that chess is a draw by best play for both sides.

That is because you would be attempting to interdict our use of the verb "to know" and our correct use of it here. If you veto philosophically based discussion, which can only be because you don't understand it, then you cannot discuss what is meant by "knowing". If you have no understanding of the psychology of epistemology, or in plain English, of understanding knowledge and belief, you have no business on this thread in anything but a learning capacity.

That definitely applies to haiaku and to all others who have fixed  but highly simplistic opinions on this. If you felt able to comment on my little discourse on superstition, science and hypothesis, you would have attempted to do so by now. It's absolutely necessary to engage, if you don't wish to look like children. That's because you are trying to use philosophy and psychology to claim that tygxc and I cannot know something we claim to know, whilst having no knowledge of what you're talking about.

In particular, haiaku's hiding behind his "understanding" of science is ridiculous.

If only the topic of this post were "tell us what you know about chess being a forced draw"...oh wait, it's about solving chess, which is defined as proving it past personal belief.

All this diatribe accomplishes is to say "we have an opinion and we have stated it".  Bravo.

Avatar of lfPatriotGames

From what I've heard not every game at the highest level is a draw. Sometimes one side wins. So if almost all chess games are draws that means chess is a draw, that also means since almost all lottery plays are not wins, winning the lottery is not possible. 

I understand that many chess games are draws. But I also understand that most lottery plays are not wins. For me, that doesn't prove anything. It's a pattern. But not proof.

If chess has been proven to be a draw, why are there wins? If it's been proven to be a draw, why do people disagree? There must be some reason not everyone agrees. 

I could just as easily say because white has a first move advantage, AND the percentage of white wins at the highest level goes up, that's proof chess is a forced win for white. But until white wins every single time it's only evidence, not proof. And until all games are draws it's evidence, not proof. 

Avatar of Elroch

Even if every one of a billion games between the top players were draws, this would not prove chess to be a draw. The reason is that it is at least conceivable that there is a very narrow winning strategy that requires dozens of unique moves in every line and the players are just too weak to find them all (like current top engines are too weak to accurately play complex tablebase positions without help).

Avatar of Optimissed
haiaku wrote:

@Optimissed

I have read your essay carefully. I have already stated in a previous post that since logic is based on postulates, in fact deductions are a form of faith. Therefore I do not agree with your distinction between cultists, scientists and theorists; we are all cultists to start with.


You've started extremely badly. What do you imagine you know of my deepest thoughts on this subject? You need to go with the childish portrayal I made and not kick up arguments immediately, on the mistaken assumption that "you know better". Instead, try to work out where we agree and base your points of argument on them, rather than where you imagine we differ. Your imagination is liable to run riot and you should get off to a safe start, rather than portray yourself badly, because your differences are either semantic or can easily be ironed out.

A deduction is not a form of faith. That is because, in order to communicate, we accept that a deduction or syllogism is no more than a rearrangement of ideas. There should be no need for a faith that ideas don't suddenly change, because that would mean that there's no communication in any case. So your faith is nothing more than that we each have the same understanding of what a deduction is. I'm fairly sure we do. Take a look at my deduction that chess is a draw, which I made in my previous post, based on the colour of custard.

But this discussion about epistemology and philosophy of science may lead too much off topic.

No, it's on topic. You can't get out of it that easily. It's only off topic to someone who doesn't understand the topic. But you claim to understand the topic.

The core point is that without an exhaustive proof, there is no doubt that no scientific theory can be guaranteed to hold true in any possible case. Galilean relativity, Newton's law of gravitation and classical mechanics are golden examples. They were thought to be always true, "unbeatable" so to speak, and they were consistent with centuries of experiments. There was no evidence that they might produce quite inaccurate predictions. We all know how it went: they fail miserably under some circumstances.

Not at all. They produce perfectly accurate results that are suitable for the environment in which they were conceived. You seem to be wanting to introduce a fallacy ... that of assuming that there are mysterious circumstances that alter the characteristics of chess, perhaps only when computers are playing or a game's more than 200 moves long. Doesn't work, because a game of chess is well-defined and plays out within those limits. The rules do not allow for weird, relativistic effects within chess, so you're wrong again.

In game theory, "optimal" is not a casual attribute. For chess, it means that an optimal player would be unbeatable in a match with an even number of games: if the game value is a draw, the optimal player would at least draw every game; if it's a win for either colour, the optimal player would always force the win with that colour. Therefore, the optimal player cannot score less than 50% of the points. Without a mathematical, exhaustive proof, a player cannot be guaranteed to be optimal, exactly like a scientific theory, without an exhaustive proof, cannot be guaranteed to always hold true.

This is confused. The first part is unnecessary. At least we know what we mean by "best play" or perhaps, "optimal", because we've been talking about it, in various threads, for about four years now and we did reach a consensus. Off the top of my head, optimal play is that which doesn't alter the game result negatively, for the player who made that move. Some like to say "from the game-theoretic value" but that's unnecessary, because it doesn't add anything useful. Just an illusion of grandeur.

This is not what people expect, when they read something like "the game xyz has been solved". They think about a definitive solution, that nobody will be able to disprove, ever.

You could never be sure that there wasn't a mistake in the analysis, due to a glitch of some unexpected kind. So wrong again, I'm afraid. You really needed to do what I asked you to do and comment on what I wrote, because we didn't make any progress doing it your way. You didn't make any useful points.

 

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