There isn't a mate in one. With checks from all pieces King has escape to h8 where it is not in check. The only way for it to be mate is if Bishop puts it in check. The only way for bishop to put the king in check is if dxe6 en passant. However we dont know that e6 was the previous move.
So in light of this lack of clarity there is no mate in one.
Hard to convince everyone here though.
Thats the problem with this puzzle. When you are thinking mate in 1, you dont think en passant. However if you conclusively show e6 as the last move, then a lot of people will stumble onto the en passant solution, thus making it not the hardest mate in 1 puzzle.
However without mention of e6 as the previous move, there just is no mate in 1.
It is not mate in 1!
It is mate in 2. Can you find mate in 2?
(Answer in white text - below)
1.Rfxf7+ Kh8 2.Rxh7#
Bit of a trick question... unless you know the pawn just moved two... then is easy?
Of course if the puzzle was meant to be a 1-move mate, then it had to be an "en passant" situation right? There is nothing to argue about whether its en passant or not, when the puzzle requires it to be mate in 1 then its just common sense, the only thing that is lacking here is for the creator to state that the last move is indeed "e7-e5" but it already gives away the answer. All in all, its a puzzle not really worth arguing about.
I'm sorry… but where is one move mate here !?
please help me... I don't see it.
Thats a mate in two
OK... Then where is mate in two moves here ?
Thats a mate in two
OK... Then where is mate in two moves here ?
White text below
1.Rfxf7+ Kh8 2.Rxh7#
By my logic:
If you are told that there is a mate in 1, and en passant is the only possible mating move, then black's last move MUST have been e7-e5; otherwise there would be no mate in one and the puzzle would be invalid.
Oh... Thank you ! lol
I would never come to this with my mind.
I could think all my life - and I would not solve this puzzle !
There is no M1, but M2. Rxf7+ Kh8 Rxh7#
Nope. Black King takes White Rook on h7 !
Your plan is wrong.
There is no M1, but M2. Rxf7+ Kh8 Rxh7#
Nope. Black King takes White Rook on h7 !
Your plan is wrong.
You do not know what Rxf7+ is
It could be Rbxf7+ or Rfxf7+
There is no M1, but M2. Rxf7+ Kh8 Rxh7#
Nope. Black King takes White Rook on h7 !
Your plan is wrong.
You do not know what Rxf7+ is
It could be Rbxf7+ or Rfxf7+
Trexler, oh... ok.
Now I see. He meant other Rook.
The rules covering e.p. captures and castling in composed problems have been around for a very long time, and made official by the WFCC - the chess problem equivalent of FIDE. Here's a quote from the Codex of Chess Composition from their site:
Article 16 – Castling and En-passant capture
(1) Castling convention. Castling is permitted unless it can be proved that it is not permissible.
(2) En-passant convention. An en-passant capture on the first move is permitted only if it can be proved that the last move was the double step of the pawn which is to be captured.
Therefore the e.p. mating move in the OP is definitely invalid, as you can't prove that the last move by Black was a double-step by the P. For an example where an e.p. capture is a valid key, see my post#8 in this thread: Chess Question.
Chess problem rules according to WFCC are like chess playing rules according to FIDE. If you don't follow their rules, you won't get arrested, but you look kind of ignorant. Whoever made the OP position obviously doesn't know the problem convention relating to e.p. capture, and that's a bit like a chess noob playing the game for a while without knowing the e.p. rule itself.
lol
Dxe6 en passant