Pi

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Apoapsis

Since this thread has forgotten it's roots, I'll raise another question:

Why can calculators justify that 1 / 3 = 0.3333333 x 3 = 0.9999999


KillaBeez
BasicLvrCH8r wrote:

Infinity. Ahh. Saying infinity is a number, which it is not, it is very likely that infinity equals negative infinity. This can be proven (?) by this proof.

∞ = 1/0 | Given (?)

1/0 = 1/0 *-1/-1 | Identity property

1/0 = -1/0 | Simplify

1/0 = -1 * 1/0 | Factor

That is assuming that  ∞ = 1/0.

Also, the fact that a graph touches an assymptote at both ∞ and -∞ suggests that thy are equal, because the graph is considered a function. 

Infinity and negative infinity are equal. The number line is circular. 


It is difficult for the finite mind to comprehend infinity.   The square root of infinity is negative infinity and infinity.  To truly comprehend infinity, the number line must be a circle.  Which means that negative infinity must be equal to infinity.  Infinity is the zero of unreal numbers.  -0=0 because -1 x 0=0.  If we can't define infinity, we cannot define nothingness.  So the definition of infinity  must be a circle.  The number line is circular.


ADK

3.14159265358979...

ADK

NotKasparov

As of right now, I have memorized FIVE digits of pi!  Cool  But what I think is more cool is to prove pi with a calculater but without other external help, e.g. you can't look up an article about pi.  For the arragant geek bragging record, I'm proud to say that I accomplished this soon after I learned what sines and cosines and stuff are.

Here's a rough proof, complete with incorrect terminology.  If anyone wants to correct the terminology, please feel free to do so.  But I think it's understandable as is.

You think of a really big regular polygon with a radius r and you find it's area in terms of r.  This really big polygon is, for all intents and purposes, a circle whose area you can find without using pi.  Looking at a triangular sector of a 1,000,000,000-gon, A of polygon = 1,000,000,000 x A of triangle = 1,000,000,000 x (1/2) x b x r.  For a 1,000,000,000-gon, (1/2) x b / r = tan ((1/2)(360 / 1,000,000,000)), so (1/2) x b = r (tan ((1/2)(360 / 1,000,000,000))), so, substituting that into A of polygon = 1,000,000,000 x (1/2) x b x r, A = 1,000,000,000 x (r (tan ((1/2)(360 / 1,000,000,000)))) x r, so A = 1,000,000,000 x r x r x (tan ((1/2)(360 / 1,000,000,000))).  Evaluate that and A approx = 3.141592654 x r x r.  

Apoapsis

does n=2n?

a=b

a0=(a+b)0

a=a+b                since 0 was on both sides of upper equation, it can be removed.

a=a+a                simplifying since a=b

a=2a                  simplified again.

NotKasparov

Um, bigboy, if I'm understanding your question correctly, the answer is no, for the simple reason that you aren't supposed to divide by zero.  n would only = 2n if n=0.  I think the value of anything divided by zero is called "undefined."

bjazz

Just when I was getting past mnemonics...

BasicLvrCH8r

That would be alternate algebra, which also states that any number is equal to any other number. Here's another memorization activity. Who can memorize Graham's Number?

mewmewmjolnir
bump
wutmidoin
Euler’s constant never gets any love.
Lincoy3304
Tau is better than pi