If 0^0=1, then 0^-1 equals (0^0)/(0^1)=1/0
and
0^1=(0^0)*(0^1)=1*0=0
Therefore
(1/0)*(0)=0/0 which does not equal just 1.
Showing our original assumption that 0^0 equals 1, and only 1 is a fallacy.
I know you're only Joking.
But my stuff is so easy to understand that you don't need a higher education grasp it, just a few Mathematical tid pits, and Common Sense.
Yes.
You don't even need a high school education, if you are correct.
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If 0^0=1, then 0^-1 equals (0^0)/(0^1)=1/0
and
0^1=(0^0)*(0^1)=1*0=0
Therefore
(1/0)*(0)=0/0 which does not equal just 1.
Showing our original assumption that 0^0 equals 1, and only 1 is a fallacy.